How should one interpret the Bible? It has often been put this way; “When plain sense makes good sense seek no other sense lest it result in nonsense.” Now, in Matthew 19:4 Jesus said “And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female.” Then Paul wrote in 1Corinthians 11:8, 9 “For the man is not of the woman; but the woman of the man. Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man.” These verses are quoted here to show that man and woman were made for each other. They complement each other.
Why is it then that some that claim to be “Christians” and once held to the fact that homosexuality was sin according to the Bible have now changed their view? My wife has said for a long time that people become soft on certain sins when it is in their own family. She is a pretty wise woman!
At http://arestlessfaith.com.au/blog/ it says a well-known Australian Anglican leader changed his thinking on the matter of homosexuality when he discovered “…that his son was gay. I can’t remember his exact words, but they were something along these lines: ‘This experience forced me to re-think my theology and to re-assess the adequacy of earlier understandings.’” NOTE; the rethinking of homosexuality came about due to this man’s son living that lifestyle.
Does the teaching, interpretation and truth of Scripture depend what my children are into? Whatyareckon?